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The Cheating Repub-la-Cons
To try to keep a Republican in the white house, the Republican Party is trying to rig the election by splitting up California's electoral votes. They're trying to put the Presidential Election Reform Act (PERA) on the primary ballot to reward the electoral votes by congressional districts, instead of the winner takes all system, which would mean that 20 of California's 55 electoral votes would go to the Republican Party, which would be enough for the Republican presidential candidate would likely win the next election. The problem is, the Republican Party wants to install this in only Blue state California, claiming fair play, but doesn't practice what they preach elsewhere, like a red state such as Texas. My question is how come the Republican Party is resorting to cheating? Is it because they know they can't win this year's election because of their downfall, or because they want to monopolize our government into a one party system?
8 comments from 6 users
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posted by
dusty1215
on Sep 22, 2007 at 01:31 PM
posted by
Charlie3
on Sep 22, 2007 at 04:29 PM
Have you checked a voting map lately ? The overwhelming majority of counties are red. It's the huddled masses of LW niwits that populate the coast line who carry it for the left. The rest of us would like some representation too.
posted by
Shsrebel10
on Sep 22, 2007 at 05:18 PM
Charlie Everyone is equally represented, including the red counties. Thats why we have the house of representatives The problem with the Republican proposal is that they only want to do it for one state, California, so they can grab power. This isn't about equal representation. If it was, they would do the same thing in Texas where there are some very liberal area's, such as Dallas, Austin, and El Paso. But no, they only want this system in California but not the rest of the U.S. Freaken RW niwits. posted by
tonyh
on Sep 22, 2007 at 05:58 PM
Seems to me that it would only be fair if it were done in all 50 states. Why only California and Texas? Shouldn't the rules for a national election be the same for the entire nation?
posted by
ChicoEsquela
on Sep 22, 2007 at 06:17 PM
Charlie is correct It is the preponderance of pinheads in urban centers who are on the dole and whom are easy to bus to voting booths that keep CA and some other states "blue" If the working people of CA (just as a one state for instance) had a say (like the proposed legislation suggests) the Dems would never win an WH election again! Aside from that, it makes sense anyway posted by
sagefever
on Sep 22, 2007 at 06:27 PM
If we go one party~ some say we veer dangerously close anyway ~ ii is no longer America. Trust in history..I can hear the pendulum swinging now, back and forth. posted by
sagefever
on Sep 22, 2007 at 06:32 PM
posted by
Shsrebel10
on Sep 22, 2007 at 11:40 PM
Tonyh, I agree if we were to pass it it should be for all 50 states not just 1 or 2. My point was that the Republican Party is trying to do it here in California where its a solidly blue state but not in Texas thats a solidly red state.
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