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axiomtek - > LIBERTY OR DEATH -> State Intervention Opposition Fallacy
State Intervention Opposition Fallacy

 

 


In some recent political conversation’s I’ve had with friends and strangers, I’ve come across a fallacious argument that’s so common that it deserves a name. I’ve already done a little re-search if there’s a term for this fallacy but have failed to find anything. The argument in short, is that one’s opposition to a governmental policy is to be against the intentions of the policy or it’s founders. Here are a few examples of this fallacy.

 

Charles: I agree with Obama that we ought to double our foreign aid to poor nations.

David: Yes, I hear that’s something he intends on doing, I don’t agree with him on that though.

Charles: I don’t get it, why are you opposed to that? Are you against helping poor nations? Don’t you think poor people should have food?

or


Charles:
You know, obesity is a big problem, which is why I’m happy they passed a “trans fat” ban here in California.

David: I’m not happy at all, I don’t feel comfortable with the government regulating whether or not I can eat fatty foods.
Charles: …but don’t you want people have a healthier diet? Do you approve of people getting overweight?

 

The reasoning that motivates the questions asked by Charles is that David’s opposition to a governmental policy is to be against the intentions of the policy or its founders. What’s wrong with this? The error is that what is in question is not the intentions but the methods. The question on whether or governmental policy is just and should be supported is not solely determined by the intentions of the policy, but other considerations. Will the policy achieve its objective? Are there superior forms of that policy that will achieve the objective more efficiently? Does the government have the legal or constitutional right to do what is in question? Does the policy strip rights away from others? These are just a few important considerations that should determine whether a policy should be supported or exist at all.

 

I’m going to call this fallacy the “State Intervention Opposition Fallacy,” since the reasoning behind it is always in response to someone’s opposition to the state’s intervention.

 

Let’s consider the case of foreign aid. It’s obvious that the intentions of foreign aid are in part to help poor nations, if so why oppose it? For starters you could argue that giving poor nations food does address why they are poor in the first place but instead gives temporary assistance. Second, it’s clear that it’s unconstitutional and illegal. Here are some quotes by our founders and other political leaders:

 

" The government of the United States is a definite government, confined to specified objects. It is not like state governments, whose powers are more general. Charity is no part of the legislative duty of the government.”

-- James Madison, speech in the House of Representatives, January 10, 1794

 

"I cannot find any authority in the Constitution for public charity. [To approve the measure] would be contrary to the letter and spirit of the Constitution and subversive to the whole theory upon which the Union of these States is founded."

-- President Franklin Pierce's 1854

"I cannot undertake to lay my finger on that article of the Constitution which granted a right to Congress of expending, on objects of benevolence, the money of their constituents."

-- James Madison, 4 Annals of congress 179 (1794)

 

Third, there’s data out there (I don’t have on hand) that suggest the amount of money given by American’s voluntarily is much higher than given by our government in the form of tax dollars, therefore rending idea of foreign aid unnecessary. These are all legitimate reasons to oppose foreign aid, and none of them require that you hate poor people.

 

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posted by axiomtek on Monday, December 1, 2008 at 11:13 PM
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17 comments from 6 users

1

posted by middlepath on Dec 2, 2008 at 12:14 AM

I have always been a huge fan of private charitable giving, primarily because I believe it is the moral duty of individuals to help one another, and because charitable programs usually exceed the brief of the US Government. 

Government is notorious for giving half the benefit at twice the cost...

That said, there are some benevolences of our government that have made our nation as great as it is today. 

Certainly we benefit from public education, and our food programs have saved people from starvation.  We are a very prosperous nation, or at least we should be.  We can afford many luxuries, including the luxury of controversy, for since we need not spend our time with matters of survival, we can piddle away millions of dollars and our hours debating points of political minutiae with one another.  Certainly, this is a sign of our affluence if nothing else. 

I don't believe many third world countries have long running debates on stem cell research, gay marriage, or trans fat bans...

 

 

 

posted by catpaw on Dec 2, 2008 at 03:33 AM

The quotes you posted was also a time of slavery as an institution. Had those views prevailed at the end of WW2, there'd have been no Marshall Plan. As creative and unique as our Constitution is, it is also a masterpiece of compromise. It could be argued that the instrument is a product despite the heated debates of the founders. It is inaccurate to know the intent of the Founding Fathers, as they disagreed on good number of aspects of government.

Foreign aid has a broader goal than just feeding poor people. As to the legality, the Constitution does give congress charge of the purse strings.

posted by Ray_Harwick on Dec 2, 2008 at 10:51 AM

I don't quite get the idea that this is about a fallacy.  A fallacy of what? Logic? Economics? A philosophical fallacy?

How would you express this as a formula?  Maybe like this (using Madison's first quote above):

"If X (charity) was not foreseen as a duty by the original authority (the constitution), X is prohibited for all time."

But that resolves into a fallacy of "appeal to authority".

The constitution, as written by the founders, is the standard authority.
If the founders who wrote the constitution did not foresee (deliberately omitted) a duty toward X, then X is prohibited for all time.

That's the same logical fallacy used to justify the authority of the Holy Bible, the Koran, etc.. In other words, "If it isn't in the bible, you can't do that."

Right?

posted by randomfactor on Dec 2, 2008 at 11:07 AM

But that resolves into a fallacy of "appeal to authority".

Well, his quotation of supposed experts does.  I'm not sure what you'd call his main argument.  Undistributed middle, maybe?

The government fortunately is not restricted to doing only those things explicitly spelled out as permissable.  It is restricted as to what it *CANNOT* do (largely in the Bill of Rights) but nothing says that foreign aid cannot be a valuable part of "providing for the common defense."  And that it is done so as an action of the US collectively, confers a benefit which cannot be completely replaced by private charity.

posted by axiomtek on Dec 2, 2008 at 11:14 AM

Husband, the fallacy is listed twice "one’s opposition to a governmental policy is to be against the intentions of the policy or it’s founders"

Catpaw, its illegal, read the quotes.

posted by axiomtek on Dec 2, 2008 at 11:15 AM

" If one is opposed to a governmental policy, then he is against the intentions of the policy or it's founders."


posted by randomfactor on Dec 2, 2008 at 11:27 AM

Another fallacy:  "If one cannot find explicit permission for a policy in the Constitution as amended, that policy is illegal."

posted by axiomtek on Dec 2, 2008 at 11:30 AM

Yeah, of course the constitution does not say anything about hybrid cars so of course. However, article 1 section 8 has what congress shal do, if its not there its illegal.

posted by randomfactor on Dec 2, 2008 at 11:46 AM

Is it legal for the United States Congress to allow television coverage of its procedings?  Please indicate where in A1S8 that is permitted.

The elastic clause certainly gives Congress the power to pass laws giving foreign aid.

 

posted by Ray_Harwick on Dec 2, 2008 at 01:01 PM

 "If one is opposed to a governmental policy, then he is against the intentions of the policy or it's founders."

This proposition isn't a fallacious (a mistake of logic) argument. Thus, not a fallacy.

Ask the voters of Californian if they were opposed to the government policy that permitted gays to marry. 52.3% of them said yes. So, each of those individuals were

A. Opposed to a government policy  (right of same-sex couples to marry).
b. Opposed to the intentions of the policy (allows same-sex couples to marry).
c. Opposed to the policy's authors (the California Supreme Court)

It does not ALWAYS hold true, but "always" is not the test of a argument. If it holds true ONCE, it's not a fallacy.

Right?

posted by axiomtek on Dec 2, 2008 at 03:23 PM

Husband, is this a fallacy?

  1. Atoms are not visible to the naked eye
  2. Humans are made up of atoms
  3. Therefore, humans are not visible to the naked eye.

It is. It's the fallacy of composition (google it). Not only is the reasoning fallacious, but the conclusion "Humans are not visible" false.

Now consider the following

  1. Atoms are not visible to the naked eye
  2. Bacteria are made up of atoms
  3. Therefore, Bacteria is not visible to the naked eye.

Using your reasoning, that if "It holds true once"it's not a fallacy, then the fallacy of composition would no longer be considered a fallacy since in the case of Bacteria this argument results in a true conclusion.

Did you read my blog? It's not true that a voter would agree with A,B & C in your list. I voted no on 8 but agree with the intentions behind prop 8.

posted by Ray_Harwick on Dec 2, 2008 at 04:31 PM

I confess I was confused.  When you gave this proposition the name "State Intervention Opposition Fallacy,”

I knew there was no such named fallacy of logic in the entire literature.  I thought you were saying you'd discovered a new, unnamed, fallacy of logic that hadn't been discovered before. But now I understand the actual fallacy was "fallacy of composition" and that your blog was a deconstruction to show what was wrong with the proposition.

I think we're (finally) on the same page. Sorry to be such a dork.

posted by catpaw on Dec 2, 2008 at 04:48 PM

The historical comments that are posted merely point out that the Constitution does not give permission for humanitarian foreign aid. They do not say it is forbidden to do so. As random pointed out, the Constitution is explicit in stating what government cannot do. There is no ammendment that says government cannot allocate foreign aid.

Foreign diplomacy is more than shaking hands. If food aid to an armpit country helps stabilize a foreign government that accomodates us, then it is in our interest to send foreign aid. This broadens the goals of foreign aid to more than "feeding poor people." Nor does it quite fit the criterion of "charity."  

posted by axiomtek on Dec 2, 2008 at 05:04 PM

Husband, I am giving a name to this fallacy. It does not exist apart from my essay.

 

Catpaw, the constitution lists what congress can do (http://www.usconstitution.n... the founders, who have a better understanding of what the constitution permits the government to do said flat out that it's illegal and not allowed.

The constitution is the law. The law states that I have the freedom to speak and own a firearm, it is therefore illegal for anyone, or any government to take away my gun without reason.

Read the quotes, I dont understand how it can be any clearer. The founders were asked to vote on bills of chairty and they voted it down.

posted by FloridaStateGrad on Dec 2, 2008 at 05:55 PM

The Constitution is a living document - always has been, always will be.  There's a reason why Adams, Jefferson, Hamilton and others made a mark on that document (Madison is not the only author of the constitution).  Madison was a strict anti-Federalist who wanted to keep Government as small as possible. 

Either way, did it ever occur to anyone that our Founding Fathers were only human, and therefore, were not perfect and obviously did not create a perfect government?  There's a reason why we have Amendments.

 

Of course, without the "charity" of the French, we wouldn't have been able to win our independence in the first place.

posted by axiomtek on Dec 2, 2008 at 07:21 PM

Florida, what is a "living document."

I grant their imperfect, so what? That applies to all laws then.

posted by FloridaStateGrad on Dec 2, 2008 at 08:40 PM

The Constitution was set up in such a way as to be able to move with the times.  For example, many of the founding fathers realized that Slavery should be outlawed, but at that present time, it just wasn't feasible.  They left the Constitution open to both interpretation and amendment knowing that one day such matters would have a different significance to the populous.  You quoted only one author of the Constitution, yet Madison was not alone - he had help from Jefferson, Adams, Hamilton, etc.  Therefore, to say that Madison's words are the law of the land is a fallacy, because none of the authors of our government all agreed with each other on every principle.

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